Astronomy Multiple Choice Question Database
--
Questions with parenthetical notes before them have been used before on 
past Astronomy finals.  The question number is given (from version A, 
if there are multiple versions) along with the ScorePak analysis scores.  
The first number is a rating (Easy, Medium, Hard) followed by the percentage 
of students who got it right.  The second number is a fairness rating (Poor, 
Fair, Good) which is an indicator of how fair the question is (i.e. if good 
students missed it, or if the majority of students picked the wrong answer, 
this number is low or negative).  The higher the fairness rating, the better.  
If it is obvious how to improve a question, the suggested improvement is 
noted.  Example: (A201 - Winter 93 - #1 - Easy 85/Poor 07):  This translates: 
This was question #1 on the Winter 1993 Astro 201 final.  It was rated as 
Easy with 85% of students getting it right, but it was poor, probably because
students who got it wrong got high scores on average for the whole test.

Warning:  Some of these questions are merely "proposed" questions that
were never used on any test either because of poor wording or lack
of applicability or some other reason.  I included them here simply
because they contain at least some good ideas and would probably make
good questions with only a little editing.

Contents:
	Cosmology (13 questions)
	Models, Principles and Relativity (22 questions)
	Geometry of the Universe (15 questions)
	Microwave Background Radiation (9 questions)
	History of the Early Universe (19 questions)
	Galaxies (8 questions)
	The Milky Way (7 questions)
	Stars (16 questions)
	The Solar System (14 questions)
	Earth-Venus-Mars (16 questions)
	Origin and Evolution of Life (45 questions)
	SETI (9 questions)
*************************************************************************
                               Cosmology
*************************************************************************
------------
Hubble's Law
------------
What can you calculate by taking the inverse of the Hubble constant?
	a) The age of the solar system.
	b) The recession velocity of the Universe.
	c) The age of the Universe
	d) The Doppler Shift.
	e) The distance to the center of the Universe.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #1 - Easy 85/Poor 07)
We think the Hubble constant is about 20 km/s per Million light years.  
If it were 40 km/s per Mly, the age of the Universe would be inferred to be:
	a) Four times as small
	b) Twice as small
	c) The same
	d) Twice as large
	e) Four times as large
--
A Hubble constant of 20 km/s per Mly implies an age for the Universe of 
around 18 Billion years.  If we could prove that the oldest globular 
clusters are around 13 Billion years old, then:
	a) The steady-state theory would be proven correct.
	b) The Hubble constant value of 20 would be correct.
	c) The Hubble constant value of 40 would be correct.
	d) We would know that the Sun is at least 13 billion years old.
	e) The Universe is probably older than 13 billion years old.
--
A galaxy that is three times as far away as another seems to move _______ 
times as fast as the closer one
	a) 1/9
	b) 1/3
	c) just as fast
	d) 3
	e) 9
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #2 - Medium 61/Fair 19)
The Hubble relation only works over very large distances.  What makes it 
invalid on smaller scales such as in our galaxy or within a large cluster 
of galaxies?
	a) On small scales, galaxies don't tend to move much relative to 
	   one another.
	b) The influence of local gravitational effects is far greater 
	   than the influence of expansion on small scales.
	c) The Universe only expands on large scales, not on small scales.
	d) Space-time only curves on large scales.
	e) There are too few objects (e.g. stars and galaxies) close to us 
	   to enable us to state a Hubble relation with any confidence.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #3 - Easy 93/Poor 06)
Suppose you start out on a trip along the highway.  Relative to your speed, 
there are two cars that start out right next to you but with higher 
velocities.  One is going 10 mph faster than you and the other is going 
20 mph faster than you.  After some time, the first car is 30 miles ahead 
from you, and the second car is 60 miles ahead of you.  How old is 
this "highway Universe?"
	a) 3 minutes
	b) 30 minutes
	c) 1 hour
	d) 3 hours
	e) 30 hours
--
Let's say that rather than doing a standard Hubble relation diagram, you 
decide to make it easier on yourself to plot galaxy velocity in million 
light years per billion years (rather than the standard kilometers per 
second).  Let's say you plot distance in units of a million light years.  
After putting all of your points on the graph and measuring the slope 
as best you can, you get a value of 0.1 for the best fit line to the 
data points.  What value does this imply for the age of the 
Universe (assuming it has expanded in the same manner throughout time)?
	a) 10 million years
	b) 100 million years
	c) 1 billion years
	d) 10 billion years
	e) 100 billion years
--
If we weren't limited by our equipment and other factors (we can't 
currently see fainter than about 28th magnitude), we would be able to 
eventually catalog every galaxy in the Universe, listing properties 
such as its color, apparent magnitude, approximate distance, etc.  
What pattern would we expect to see in our data?
	a) There would be more faint galaxies than bright galaxies, 
	   since galaxies tend to be fainter intrinsically (as 
	   opposed to the very rare bright galaxies).
	b) There would be more faint galaxies than bright galaxies, 
	   since faintness is a rough measure of distance, and galaxies 
	   are more numerous the further away you look.
	c) There would be an equal number of bright and faint galaxies 
	   as seen from Earth in accordance with the Cosmological 
	   Principle, which demands homogeneity.
	d) There would be more bright galaxies than faint galaxies, 
	   since bright galaxies are easier for us to see from Earth.
	e) There would be more bright galaxies than faint galaxies, 
	   since intrinsically bright galaxies are more common than 
	   intrisically faint galaxies.
--
The Hubble relation states that the radial velocity of an object will 
increase (in the direction away from us) as the distance to the object 
increases.  This tells us that the Universe is expandingon large scales.  
If there were no such expansion, what pattern would we expect to see in 
the data?
	a) The same general trend, only much less pronounced.  Radial 
	   velocity would still increase with distance but only by 
	   about half as much.
	b) The same general trend would be present, but there would be 
	   far more uncertainty (or scatter) in the data, allowing the 
	   trend to be positive but with less precision.
	c) The opposite trend would be observed.  Radial velocity would 
	   decrease with distance, and the graph would be the mirror 
	   image of the one described above.
	d) The trend would show a decrease in radial velocity close by 
	   and then a switch to the "normal" trend far away, with these 
	   two effects cancelling each other overall.
	e) There would be no trend showing increase or decrease of radial 
	   velocity with distance, but you could still have some random 
	   variations in your data points.
--
How does the standard candle assumption work to help us find distances 
to other galaxies?
	a) We measure the apparent brightness of a galaxy and use that, 
	   along with its assumed "standard" brightness and the 
	   luminosity-distance relation to get a distance.
	b) We assume all galaxies obey the Hubble relation, so we measure 
	   the radial velocity and then use the standard value for the 
	   Hubble constant to find the distance.
	c) We measure the apparent size of an object and use the assumed 
	   "standard" size of that object, along with trigonometric 
	   relations, to solve for the distance.
	d) We collect a large sample of galaxies and find radial velocities 
	   for each one, then we assume that they are all at the same 
	   average distance based on average velocity.
	e) We assume that without some kind of a candle, we'd never see 
	   our data while we're in the dark collecting data at the telescope.
--
If you want to determine Hubble's constant, which two quantities will 
you need to observe?
	a) Color and luminosity of a Galactic star
	b) Color and luminosity of a distant galaxy
	c) Distance and recession velocity of a Galactic star
	d) Distance and recession velocity of a distant galaxy
	e) The number of llamas in the Andes
--
The Milky Way and its closest relative, the Andromeda galaxy, are 
moving closer.  What does this mean for the Hubble expansion?
	a) Expansion has been reversed into collapse.
	b) Hubble was wrong and there never was a Big Bang.
	c) This cannot be, as all distant galaxies are moving away 
	   from us at increasing velocities.
	d) There is a black hole between us and the Andromeda galaxy!
	e) Nothing: On small scales, gravity causes deviations from 
	   the Hubble flow.
--
What quantity determines how fast the value of the Hubble constant 
will decline?
	a) The critical density of the Universe
	b) The mass density of the Universe
	c) The total amount of light emitting matter in the Universe
	d) The number of different types of particles in the Universe
	e) The average amount of matter in a cluster of galaxies
--
*************************************************************************
                  Models, Principles and Relativity
*************************************************************************
Newton's paradox is best explained by which of the following?
	a) If the Universe has an infinite age, why hasn't it collapsed?
	b) If the Universe is finite in space, does it have an edge?
	c) If the Universe is finite in time, what occured before the Big Bang?
	d) If the Universe began as a single "point," how can it be infinite?
	e) Why is the night sky dark?
--
Newton's paradox states that given the right conditions, the Universe 
would eventually collapse upon itself.  What kind of Universe does 
this gravitational paradox rule out, assuming all types of 
Universes listed below are homogeneous?
	a) A Universe that is finite in age but infinite in size
	b) A Universe that is finite in size and finite in mass
	c) A Universe that is infinite in age and infinite in mass
	d) A Universe that is infinite in size and infinite in mass
	e) Any kind of Universe with an infinite age
--
Olbers' paradox is best summarized by which of the following?
	a) If the Universe has an infinite age, why hasn't it collapsed?
	b) If the Universe is finite in space, does it have an edge?
	c) If the Universe is finite in time, what occured before the Big Bang?
	d) If the Universe began as a single "point," how can it be infinite?
	e) Why is the night sky dark?
--
If you go out on a clear night and look up at the dark sky, what conclusion 
can you draw about the Universe as a whole?
	a) It is isotropic.
	b) If has a finite volume, but no edge.
	c) It is infinite.
	d) If cannot be homogeneous and infinite in space and time.
	e) It is homogeneous.
--
What solves Olbers' paradox?
	a) The finiteness of the observable Universe
	b) The redshift of very distant objects
	c) Dark clouds of dust that obscure distant objects.
	d) All of the above
	e) Two of the above
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #4 - Medium 75/Good 31)
What is one reason the night sky is dark?
	a) There just aren't enough stars and galaxies in the Universe to 
	   cover even a small fraction (say, 10%) of the night sky.
	b) Intervening dust and gas clouds get in the way of light from 
	   the more distant objects, resulting in a largely dark sky,
	   assuming the Universe has lived long enough for the clouds
	   to heat up.
	c) Even if the Universe is infinite in extent, light from the 
	   most distant stars and galaxies hasn't had time to reach us 
	   yet since the Universe only has a finite age.
	d) Distant objects aren't bright enough to contribute enough 
	   light to make even the smallest patch of light as bright as 
	   the surface of the Sun.
	e) Because the Universe doesn't have sufficient mass to cause 
	   an ultimate collapse in the distant future.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #6 - Hard 35/Poor -18  63% answered e)
Which of the following observational facts is consistent with the Big 
Bang theory?
	a) The Cosmic Background Radiation
	b) The Hubble expansion of the Universe
	c) The Cosmological Principle
	d) a and b
	e) a, b and c
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #9 - Medium 67/Fair 29)
The Cosmological Principle implies which one of the following is valid:
	a) The Doppler effect and Euclidean geometry
	b) Newtonian mechanics and relativity
	c) Homogeneity and isotropy of the Universe
	d) Hubble's Law and the curvature of the Universe.
	e) Great taste and less filling
--
The Perfect Cosmological Principle states that our Universe:
	a) Looks the same in all directions no matter where you are 
	   in the Universe
	b) Is homogeneous (uniform) on large scales
	c) Does not change in its overall nature over time
	d) b and c
	e) a, b and c
--
Why do we reject the Perfect Cosmological Principle?
	a) Occam's Razor -- the PCP is less simple than the Cosmological 
	   Principle
	b) The Universe is observed to evolve with time.
	c) Einstein's theory of General Relativity doesn't favor it.
	d) We know that Physical laws in other parts of the Universe 
	   are different.
	e) We don't reject the PCP at all; it does apply to our Universe!
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #5 - Easy 89/Good 40)
Why does the presence of quasars at great distances (and only at great 
distances) from our galaxy imply that the Perfect Cosmological Principle 
is not valid?
	a) The distances and radial velocities for the quasars violates 
	   the Hubble relation.
	b) They show that the Universe was generally different at an 
	   earlier time.
	c) The quasars are so bright that no known energy source can 
	   possibly power them.
	d) The great distances to the quasars allow us to observe 
	   gravitational lensing effects.
	e) There is no evidence that galaxies have formed at such great 
	   distances.
--
Which of the following observations would lead us to believe that the 
Steady-State model for the Universe is incorrect?
	a) The apparent creation of new matter in the interstellar vacuum
	b) The Hubble expansion of the Universe
	c) The presence of quasars at great distances (and only at great 
	   distances)
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above
--
Which of the following properties is true of a scientific model 
of the Universe?
	a) It makes predictions and so can be disproven.
	b) It obeys the Copernican (Cosmological) Principle.
	c) It applies to the Universe as a whole in a uniform fashion.
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #8 - Medium 58/Fair 29)
Which of the following properties is true of an "ad hoc" model of 
the Universe?
	a) It makes predictions and can be disproved.
	b) It explains general concepts rather than specific events.
	c) It can always be altered to explain any event and still 
	   remain valid.
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above
--
Which of the following observations is in violation of the Cosmological 
Principle?
	a) The Hubble relation (galaxies move faster the further they 
	   are away from Earth).
	b) The presence of quasars at great distances (thus only at 
	   early ages of the Universe).
	c) The variation of the Microwave Background Radiation (it 
	   appears "hotter" in onedirection and "cooler" in the opposite 
	   direction).
	d) The existence of black holes.
	e) None of the above.
--
Which of the following types of Cosmology favors the Perfect Cosmological 
Principle?
	a) The closed Universe.
	b) The open Universe.
	c) The flat Universe.
	d) The Steady-State Universe.
	e) None of the above.
--
Hoyle's theory of Panspermia consists of which of the following concepts?
	a) The Universe is in a steady state.
	b) Life is spread throughout the Universe.
	c) Life on Earth originated in outer space.
	d) Two of the above.
	e) All of the above.
--
According to General Relativity, space is positively curved around any 
mass.  This means that a circular orbit of radius R around a star has 
a circumference:
	a) Slightly less than 2*pi*R
	b) Exactly 2*pi*R
	c) Slightly more than 2*pi*R
	d) Exactly pi*R*R
	e) Cannot be measured.
--
The Principle of Equivalence states that
	a) Before inflation, there was an epoch in which all four forces 
	   were combined into one.
	b) The Microwave Background Radiation has a temperature equivalent 
	   to that of a perfect radiator ("black body") of 3 K temperature.
	c) Gravitational attraction and accelerated motion are equivalent.
	d) Light can be described both as a particle and as a wave.
	e) After inflation, our Universe evolved into a flat geometry.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #7 - Medium 71/Fair 24)
If you're travelling at a velocity of 10 mph toward a traffic light, the 
velocity of the photons emanating from the light and coming toward you 
are measured from a special device in the car with you.  Speed of light = c.  
What does your device say is the speed of the photons?
	a) c + 100 mph
	b) c + 10 mph
	c) c
	d) c - 10 mph
	e) c - 100 mph
--
Which of the following observations provides evidence to validate the 
theory of General Relativity?
	a) The Hubble expansion of the Universe
	b) Multiple quasar images resulting from gravitational lenses
	c) The Microwave Background Radiation
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above
--
The Anthropic principle states
	a) The Universe must have a density equal to the critical density.
	b) The Universe appears the same in all directions.
	c) Our location in the Universe is not special in any way.
	d) The Universe exists as it does today because we are here to 
	   observe it.
	e) The Earth's climate will always regulate itself to correct 
	   for any large scale changes.
--
*************************************************************************
                         Geometry of the Universe
*************************************************************************
(A201 - Winter 93 - #10 - Easy 88/Fair 23)
If the observed density of the Universe is greater than the critical 
density, which one of the following is true?
	a) The Universe is closed (spherical geometry).
	b) The Universe is flat (Euclidian geometry).
	c) The Universe is open (saddle geometry).
	d) The Universe is in a steady state.
	e) The Universe is collapsing.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #11 - Medium 74/Good 43)
If the average density of matter in the Universe is actually higher 
than we think by a factor of 1000 or more, then:
	a) The Universe will contract in the future.
	b) The expansion of the Universe will continue indefinitely.
	c) There should be no curvature of space.
	d) The present value of the Hubble constant must be incorrect.
	e) The Big Bang theory must be invalid.
--
Suppose we could find by clever measurements that parallel light beams 
always converge when extended to cosmological scales.  What kind 
of cosmology would this evidence support?
	a) An open Universe
	b) A closed Universe
	c) A flat Universe
	d) A Steady-State Universe
	e) None:  This evidence is irrelevant to the curvature of 
	   the Universe.
--
A black hole will cause space around it to curve in what sense?
	a) Positive
	b) Flat
	c) Negative
	d) No curvature at all
	e) Space does not exist around a black hole
--
Suppose we could find that the sum of the angles of a triangle is greater 
than 180 degrees when the triangle is so large that it extends to 
cosmological scales.  What kind of cosmology would this evidence support?
	a) The Universe is closed.
	b) The Universe is flat.
	c) The Universe is open.
	d) The Universe is in a steady state.
	e) The Universe is collapsing.
--
The Universe is expanding and therefore its density continually decreases.  
If we found out that the density of the Universe today is twice the critical 
density at the present time, how long will it be before the density 
decreases to less than the critical density and therefore the Universe 
becomes open?
	a) When the age of the Universe doubles.
	b) When the age of the Universe is four times what it is today.
	c) When the expansion of the Universe stops.
	d) When the Universe begins collapsing.
	e) This never happens -- the density always stays greater than 
	   the critical density.
--
According to General Relativity, space is positively curved around any 
mass.  This means that a circular orbit of radius R around a star has 
a circumference:
	a) Slightly less than 2*pi*R
	b) Exactly 2*pi*R
	c) Slightly more than 2*pi*R
	d) Exactly pi*R*R
	e) Cannot be measured.
--
A large group of Astronomers within the scientific community believes 
that the Universe has a flat curvature.  Why would it make these people 
happy to discover proof that dark matter exists in abundances of around 
100 times the abundance of visible matter?
	a) The presence of dark matter would explain the flat rotation 
	   curves exhibited by the Milky Way and many other galaxies.
	b) The amount of visible mass in the Universe is about 100 times 
	   too much, implying that the Universe has a closed geometry.
	c) Visible mass accounts for only about 1% of the mass needed to 
	   make the Universe have a flat geometry.
	d) The existence of a lot of dark matter would explain where all 
	   the energy has gone from the theorized inflationary period of 
	   the Universe.
	e) The dark matter would explain the inhomogeneities we see in 
	   the Microwave Background Radiation.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #12 - Easy 92/Good 39, but d could be argued)
If we add up all the visible matter (i.e. matter that emits electromagnetic 
radiation) in the Universe, what is its density?
	a) Less than the critical density.
	b) Equal to the critical density.
	c) Greater than the critical density.
	d) We have no idea
	e) Three
--
Why do astronomers think that Dark Matter exists?
	a) Distant galaxies appear to be shadowed by dark material.
	b) It is the only way they have to explain the detection of a 
	   strange low-energy radio wave.
	c) It is the best way to solve Olbers' paradox.
	d) Galaxies in clusters move too fast around one another to be 
	   held together by just the visible matter.
	e) It is the only way to classify the muck on the floor of 
	   movie theaters.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #13 - Medium 69/Good 51)
The observed motions of members of a typical cluster of galaxies suggests 
that, in order for the galaxies to be gravitationally bound together, 
the cluster must have a mass of at least 10^14 solar masses.  The cluster 
contains 100 galaxies each of which has roughly the same amount of visible 
matter as the Milky Way (which is 10^11 solar masses).  Thus we can conclude
	a) Enhanced star formation is going on inside the cluster galaxies.
	b) The cluster is in a process of formation.
	c) The cluster is at a very high redshift.
	d) Around 90% of the cluster's mass is dark matter.
	e) Inflation must have occured in order to account for the existence 
	   of this cluster.
--
This type of Universe will eventually shrink toward the superdense, 
superhot state of matter similar, if not identical, to the one from 
which it originated.
	a) Closed
	b) Open
	c) Flat
	d) Steady-state
	e) A Universe with a density equal to the critical density.
--
A geodesic is
	a) A line on a sphere
	b) The shortest path between two points
	c) Any curve on a flat surface
	d) An extraordinary geological layer, like the KT boundary
	e) The closest point of approach between two bodies in orbit
--
A closed Universe corresponds to a ________ curved space in which 
parallel lines _______.
	a) Negatively; diverge
	b) Positively; diverge
	c) Negatively; converge
	d) Positively; converge
	e) Flat; stay parallel
--
A closed Universe is:
	a) finite and bounded
	b) inhomogeneous, yet isotropic
	c) infinite and unbounded
	d) homogeneous, yet anisotropic
	e) Finite and unbounded
--
*************************************************************************
                    Microwave Background Radiation
*************************************************************************
(A201 - Winter 93 - #14 - Easy 85/Good 42)
We've said that the Microwave Background Radiation is a uniform bath 
of radiation around us, yet there is in fact a small deviation in the 
pattern.  In one direction, the radiation appears slightly "hotter" (i.e. 
the wavelength of peak emission is bluer), and in the opposite direction, 
the radiation appears "cooler" (wavelength of peak emission is redder).  
How do we explain this observation?
	a) The "hotter" direction is the direction in which we see the 
	   most quasars.
	b) The "cooler" direction is the direction in which we think 
	   the most dark matter exists (e.g. the "Great Attractor").
	c) We have not yet found a way to reconcile this observation 
	   with the Cosmological Principle, so we ignore it as a slight 
	   random fluctuation.
	d) This is caused by Doppler shifts arising from the Earth's 
	   motion with respect to the Cosmic Background.
	e) The "hotter" direction is in the plane of our solar system, 
	   so the sunlight reflecting off the dust in the solar system 
	   causes the overall background to appear hotter.
--
The Microwave Background Radiation consists of photons that were released 
from their constant interactions with matter at a time coincident to 
another important event.  Which one of the following events coincided 
with the formation of the MBR?
	a) The era of inflation
	b) The end of the era of matter-antimatter annihilation
	c) The end of the era of nucleosynthesis
	d) The time during which most of the ionized matter in the 
	   Universe became neutral
	e) The era of galaxy and star formation
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #15 - Medium 78/Good 42)
The 3 degree Kelvin background radiation is most probably
	a) Emission from distant quasars, scattered all over the sky.
	b) Emission from hot gas and dust, uniformly distributed in the 
	   Milky Way.
	c) Thermal radiation from the Universe before stars formed.
	d) Radiation from the very first generation of stars 
	   (perfect radiators).
	e) Emission from the center of our own galaxy.
--
What was the approximate temperature of the Microwave Background Radiation 
when the Universe was only about 1 billion years old (one tenth its 
current estimated age)?
	a) 0 K
	b) 0.3 K
	c) 3 K
	d) 30 K
	e) 3,000,000 K
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #16 - Easy 90/Good 40)
The fundamental reason that makes it impossible to observe electromagnetic 
radiation from the Universe at very early times, say when it was less than 
1000 years or so old, is:
	a) Our understanding of electromagnetic radiation breaks down at 
	   such early times.
	b) Objects are at a redshift that is too high to be observable.
	c) Protons and electrons did not exist yet at that time.
	d) The Universe was opaque to photons at that time.
	e) The Universe is finite in space and time.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #17 - Medium 58/Fair 23)
If the current expansion should stop in the future and reverse, what 
will happen at about 100,000 years before the Big Crunch?
	a) The radiation density will become larger than the mass density.
	b) Galaxies will start to collide and annihilate each other.
	c) Earth will be sucked into the Sun and destroyed.
	d) All particles will annihilate with each other to leave nothing 
	   but radiation.
	e) Nothing particularly interesting.
--
The fact that the Microwave Background Radiation has almost exactly 
the same spectrum in all directions in the sky is evidence that the 
Universe is:
	a) Isotropic
	b) Expanding
	c) Redshifted
	d) Filled with dust clouds
	e) Filled with stars
--
What is so important about the lumps we see in the Microwave Background 
Radiation?
	a) They are evidence of the initial fluctuations that eventually 
	   formed galaxies.
	b) They prove that the Cosmological Principle is not valid.
	c) They show that globular clusters really are younger than 
	   the age of the Universe.
	d) They don't obey Hubble's Law of universal expansion.
	e) They were the original source of all the Helium in the Universe.
--
The dominant form of radiation in our Universe is
	a) Solar radiation
	b) Gamma rays
	c) Microwave Background Radiation
	d) Radiation from stars and galaxies
	e) Cosmic rays
--
*************************************************************************
                   History of the Early Universe
*************************************************************************
At the time of decoupling (or recombination)
	a) Hydrogen and Helium were formed.
	b) Inflation began.
	c) Radiation and matter density were equal.
	d) The early galaxies became distinct entities.
	e) Matter-antimatter annihilation began.
--
What observational fact is explained by inflation?
	a) The existence of black holes.
	b) The isotropy of our Universe.
	c) The primordial abundances of H and He.
	d) The formation of elliptical galaxies.
	e) The 1980 presidential election.
--
The fundamental reason that makes it impossible to observe electromagnetic 
radiation from the Universe at very early times, say when it was less than 
1000 years or so old, is:
	a) Our understanding of electromagnetic radiation breaks down 
	   at such early times.
	b) Objects are at a redshift that is too high to be observable.
	c) Protons and electrons did not exist yet at this time.
	d) The Universe was opaque to photons before recombination.
	e) The Universe is finite in space and time.
--
Our knowledge of Physics breaks down when we get very close to the time 
of the Big Bang.  How close?
	a) To within the era of recombination
	b) To within the Planck time
	c) To within the time when gravity decoupled from the unified force
	d) To within the time of nucleosynthesis
	e) To within the time of inflation.
--
At which time did inflation occur, and what important problem does it 
try to solve?
	a) About 10^-35 seconds after the Big Bang; The origin of 
	   the Microwave Background
	b) About 10^-43 seconds after the Big Bang; How the Universe will end
	c) About 10^-35 seconds after the Big Bang; The flatness problem
	d) About 100,000 years after the Big Bang; Why we live in a matter 
	   dominated Universe
	e) About 10^-43 seconds after the Big Bang; How the Big Bang 
	   actually started
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #21 - Medium 61/Good 41)
Why were there only negligible amounts of elements heavier than Helium 
produced during the first three minutes after the Big Bang?
	a) The Universe was so hot and dense, Helium nuclei couldn't 
	   hold together.
	b) The Universe cooled and expanded so rapidly that atoms heavier 
	   than Helium didn't have time to form.
	c) The Universe wasn't hot enough to fuse elements heavier than 
	   Helium except by chance.
	d) The density of the Universe was so low that few Helium nuclei 
	   were close together in order to fuse to form heavier elements.
	e) Matter-antimatter annihilation released enough energy to 
	   disrupt most nucleosynthesis that would have normally occured 
	   during the first three minutes.
--
The early Universe was unable to make significant amounts of any element 
heavier than Helium because
	a) The supply of neutrons, one of the important building blocks, 
	   was shrinking.
	b) The temperature of the Universe fell too fast.
	c) The density of the Universe fell too fast.
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #18 - Easy 89/Fair 12)
You have learned that a background of neutrinos was released within 
the first few seconds after the Big Bang.  Why don't we have observations 
of this neutrino background?
	a) There have been no neutrino-generating reactions since the 
	   first few seconds.
	b) Neutrinos are largely the result of basic matter-antimatter 
	   annihilation, so they couldn't tell us much about the structure 
	   of the Universe.
	c) We don't understand the mechanism that produces neutrinos well 
	   enough to draw any conclusions from observing them.
	d) There is so much neutrino radiation permeating the Universe, 
	   we couldn't possibly separate out the neutrinos from the 
	   early Universe from all the other neutrino sources.
	e) Even in the large quantities in which we think neutrinos exist, 
	   they are too hard for us to detect with current technology.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #19 - Hard 26/Good 36, 35% answered d)
Which of the following events happened last?
	a) The electromagnetic force decoupled from the weak force.
	b) Neutrinos decoupled from the matter of the Universe.
	c) Electromagnetic radiation decoupled from the matter of the Universe.
	d) The initial burst of Helium formation in the Universe ended.
	e) The era of inflation took place.
--
If we were to discover that there is no Deuterium in a very distant, 
young cosmic cloud of gas, what problem would that create for cosmologists?
	a) We should not be here, as D is vital for life.
	b) The Big Bang theory is wrong, as it predicts the formation 
	   of D during the era of nucleosynthesis in the early Universe.
	c) Fusion can never have started in the interiors of stars, 
	   since D is the first isotope to be participating in fusion 
	   reactions.
	d) Galaxy formation models depend heavily on the presence of D, 
	   as it helps the clouds from which galaxies formed to coalesce.
	e) No problem at all!
--
What was the first force to decouple from the others?
	a) The strong nuclear force
	b) The weak nuclear force
	c) Electromagnetism
	d) Gravity
	e) They're all together still.
--
We find today that the amount of radiation energy in the Universe is 
less than the matter energy, yet this wasn't always the case.  At what 
time after the Big Bang was the radiation density about equal to the
matter density (before this, the radiation density was greater)?
	a) 3 seconds
	b) 3 minutes
	c) 3000 years
	d) 100,000 years
	e) 1 billion years
--
According to the most dependable theories, which of the following 
events occurs first in the Universe?
	a) Protons decay
	b) The first stars and galaxies form
	c) The era of inflation takes place (not the 1970's)
	d) The four forces are all decoupled from each other
	e) Life emerges on Earth
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #20 - Easy 89/Good 36)
Most of the Hydrogen in the Universe was created in
	a) The Big Bang
	b) Stars of mass < 1 solar mass
	c) Stars of mass > 6 solar masses
	d) Supernovae
	e) White dwarfs
--
Quasars are thought to be the earliest visible structures in the Universe 
because of their
	a) Redshifts
	b) Intrinsic brightness
	c) Quasi-stellar nature
	d) Size
	e) Faintness
--
We can't know what happened at times earlier than the Planck time because
	a) The Universe was opaque prior to recombination.
	b) Space and time are undefined prior to this epoch.
	c) It is at such a high redshift, we could never guess what 
	   happened so early.
	d) Protons and electrons were not yet formed.
	e) It is too hard to get grants to study the early Universe.
--
All of the Deuterium we find in our Galaxy was
	a) Formed during the Big Bang.
	b) Formed in stellar envelopes.
	c) Formed in stellar cores.
	d) Formed in supernovae.
	e) Formed in fusion reactors on the Earth.
--
From which type of Universe would you not expect to be able to see 
gravity waves as leftovers from its creation?
	a) An open Universe.
	b) A flat Universe.
	c) A closed Universe.
	d) A Steady-State Universe.
	e) Every Universe has a beginning in time.
--
Of all the following types of photons, which one is the oldest type of 
photon that we have detected on Earth?
	a) Photons from our Sun
	b) Photons from globular clusters
	c) Photons from the inflationary era of the Universe
	d) Photons from the Microwave Background Radiation
	e) Photons from the most distant quasars yet discovered
--
*************************************************************************
                               Galaxies
*************************************************************************
What explains the difference in stellar populatios of Spirals and Ellipticals?
	a) Gas and dust clouds don't run into each other as well in Spirals 
	   as in Ellipticals to trigger star formation.
	b) Ellipticals formed billions of years before the Spirals did, 
	   so they contain much less in the way of heavy elements.
	c) The random orbits in ellipticals make it harder for new stars 
	   to form.
	d) The random orbits in ellipticals make stars live longer.
	e) Ellipticals don't have llamas, a well-known star formation 
	   catalyst.
--
Why shouldn't you look for a planet like ours in the halo of a spiral 
galaxy (as opposed to the disk)?  
	a) Halo stars are more likely to be red giants, and no Earth-like 
	   planet could survive long in orbit around such a star.
	b) Halo stars are generally less luminous, so they do not provide 
	   enough energy for life to develop even if we found an orbiting 
	   Earth-like planet.
	c) The stars in the halo tend to be bright than the stars in the 
	   disk and so are more likely to interfere with the detection of 
	   orbiting planets.
	d) Halo stars have fewer heavy elements and so the light energy 
	   from them would not be as conducive to planetary formation.
	e) There would have been fewer heavy elements for the formation 
	   of a terrestrial planet in the initial collapsing cloud of a 
	   halo star.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #23 - Medium 68/Good 59, but e might be argued)
Which of the following types of stars is most likely to have a planet 
with life as we know it?
	a) A one solar mass star formed very soon after the recombination era.
	b) A three solar mass, main sequence star in the galactic disk.
	c) A one solar mass Red Giant in the galactic disk.
	d) A 0.7 solar mass main sequence star in the Galactic disk.
	e) None of them could possibly have life.
--
Which of the following types of stars is too young to have had a chance 
to get life going?
	a) A one solar mass star formed very soon after the recombination era.
	b) A three solar mass, main sequence star in the galactic disk.
	c) A one solar mass Red Giant in the galactic disk.
	d) A 0.7 solar mass main sequence star in the Galactic disk.
	e) None of them could possibly be old enough.
--
Which of the following types of stars does not have the required heavy 
elements that life needs?
	a) A one solar mass star formed very soon after the recombination era.
	b) A three solar mass, main sequence star in the galactic disk.
	c) A one solar mass Red Giant in the galactic disk.
	d) A 0.7 solar mass main sequence star in the Galactic disk.
	e) None of them could possibly have enough heavy elements.
--
Which of the following forces will act to oppose the collapse of a large 
cloud into a galaxy?
	a) The expansion of the Universe
	b) The angular momentum of the cloud
	c) The heating of the cloud as it collapses
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #24 - Medium 63/Fair 28, 30% answered c)
What is happening to the overall amount of Hydrogen in the Milky Way galaxy?
	a) It is decreasing because it is so light that it can escape 
	   the Galaxy.
	b) It is decreasing because stars are fusing it into heavier elements.
	c) It is staying the same due to an equilibrium of many different 
	   processes.
	d) It is increasing as the last remnants of Big Bang nucleosynthesis 
	   cause Hydrogen to condense out of the Microwave Background 
	   Radiation.
	e) It is increasing as stars burn up heavier elements like Helium 
	   to get more Hydrogen fuel.
--
Which of the following statements about globular clusters is not true:
	a) A globular cluster is a large collection of 100,000 to 10 million 
	   stars orbiting each other.
	b) There are about a hundred globular clusters in orbit around 
	   our galaxy.
	c) Many globular clusters have ages greater than 10 billion years
	d) Globular clusters tend to have a very low heavy element content
	e) You can usually find globular clusters in the spiral arms
--
*************************************************************************
                             The Milky Way
*************************************************************************
Which of the following is NOT a difference between a typical halo star 
and the Sun.
	a) The halo star will tend to be older.
	b) The halo star will tend to have fewer heavy elements.
	c) The halo star will have a redder spectrum.
	d) Two of the above
	e) None of the above
--
Which one of the following is a property of a typical spiral galaxy 
like the Milky Way?
	a) Composed primarily of very old stars and almost no gas.
	b) Formed within the last billion or so years.
	c) Has a gaseous disk with many young, massive stars.
	d) Almost no recent star formation is apparent (within the past 
	   billion years)
	e) Very few nebulae (clouds of dust) are present.
--
Why do we see more stars looking up out of the plane of the Milky Way's 
disk than we do when we are looking through the disk itself?
	a) Galaxies in the Universe tend to be arranged in this way.
	b) Gas and dust within the disk blocks our line of sight.
	c) Galaxies are more likely to form above and below the plane.
	d) The Sun blocks us from looking out through the disk.
	e) Galaxies give off more light the closer they are to the galactic 
	   pole, so they're easier to see.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #25 - Medium 82/Good 32)
Based upon what we know about the structure of the Milky Way galaxy and 
our location in it, which one of the following is true of the sky as 
we observe it?
	a) Galaxies appear to be evenly distributed over the whole sky, 
	   in agreement with the Cosmological Principle.
	b) Stars appear to be evenly distributed over the whole sky, 
	   in agreement with the Cosmological Principle.
	c) Almost all of the stars we see are in the Milky Way halo 
	   since the disk is filled with so much intervening dust and gas.
	d) There appear to be more galaxies at low galactic latitudes 
	   because the halo material of the Milky Way blocks our view at 
	   high galactic latitudes.
	e) There appear to be more galaxies at high galactic latitudes 
	   because there is less dust and gas blocking the line of sight 
	   out of the Milky Way in that direction.
--
The observed distribution of stars in our galaxy (the Milky Way) is:
	a) homogeneous
	b) isotropic
	c) homogeneous and isotropic
	d) able to account for all the mass in the galaxy
	e) none of the above
--
Which of the following is true about the spiral arms in the Milky Way galaxy?
	a) Most of the dust and gas in the galaxy lies in the arms.
	b) Most star formation occurs in the arms.
	c) Nearly all of the brightest stars are found in the arms.
	d) Two of the above.
	e) All of the above.
--
In the Milky Way galaxy, the Sun is located
	a) In a spiral arm, about 2/3 of the way out from the center.
	b) Very near the nuclear bulge of the galaxy.
	c) In a spiral arm on the outer edge of the galaxy.
	d) In the galactic halo.
	e) In the outer parts of the large globular cluster known as M13.
--
*************************************************************************
                                Stars
*************************************************************************
Which of the following forces will act to oppose the collapse of a large 
cloud into a star?
	a) The presence of elements heavier than Hydrogen and Helium
	b) The angular momentum of the cloud
	c) The heating of the cloud as it collapses
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above
--
What event effectively shuts off the formation of a star?
	a) Exhaustion of the matter in the cloud from which the star is 
	   forming.
	b) Disruption of the cloud from which the star is forming by 
	   passage through a spiral arm, or by a supernova blast wave.
	c) Vaporization of the the dust in the warm accretion disk, 
	   which makes the gas incapable of collapsing further.
	d) Dispersion of the gas by large newly-formed planets.
	e) Onset of deuterium fusion in the protostar.
--
The process of star formation involves the formation of an accretion disk, 
whereby matter falls into a flat disk, and once there, slowly spirals 
into the object in the center of the disk.  What fundamental problem 
does this solve in star formation?
	a) It sifts out the deuterium that is needed for the initial 
	   fusion episode in the star.
	b) The accretion disk radiates only in the infrared, allowing 
	   the accreting material to get rid of its heat without ionizing 
	   the gas.
	c) An accretion disk provides a way of getting most of the mass 
	   into the central object while at the same time getting rid 
	   of most of the angular momentum.
	d) It explains why star formation only occurs in dust clouds, 
	   since only dust will form an accretion disk.
	e) Two of the above
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #26 - Easy 96/Poor -05)
Why do only the most massive stars (greater than about 6 solar masses) 
eventually erupt into supernovae?

	a) It takes such a large mass star to develop a degenerate core 
	   like a white dwarf.
	b) Because supernovae are more common in spiral galaxies, 
	   which have more massive stars.
	c) Because only the most massive stars can reach temperatures 
	   high enough to start fusing Iron and initiating a catastrophic 
	   core collapse.
	d) The more massive stars have greater numbers of heavy elements 
	   when they first form, making it easier to fuse elements more 
	   massive than Iron.
	e) These stars have too much mass to release any pressure on their 
	   interiors by emitting a stellar wind and letting some of the 
	   outer atmosphere escape.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #27 - Medium 67/Fair 13, 22% answered a)
What were the very first stars made of (neglecting trace constituents)?
	a) Hydrogen only
	b) Hydrogen and Helium only
	c) Hydrogen, Helium and Carbon only
	d) Hydrogen, Helium, Nitrogen and Carbon only
	e) Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen and Nitrogen only (CHON)
--
Massive stars (say, greater than a solar mass) have more fuel to burn than 
stars like the Sun.  Why, then, do they not live as long?  
	a) They tend to have more heavy elements, and so they begin fusing 
	   Iron more rapidly.
	b) Because of their higher core temperatures, they use up their 
	   fuel much more rapidly.
	c) That's not true.  The more fuel a star has, the longer it 
	   will live.
	d) Since massive stars tend to form later, they form with 
	   proportionally less Hydrogen.
	e) They just couldn't kick that damn smoking habit.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #28 - Easy 97/Fair 29)
Why does the fusion of Iron in the core of a star signal the beginning 
of a supernova?
	a) Because when two iron atoms meet, they will fuse to form 
	   radioactive Uranium, effectively making the stellar core a 
	   giant fission bomb.
	b) Iron fusion releases a tremendous amount of energy, causing 
	   the star to blow itself apart.
	c) Iron is a catalyst, causing reactions to take place at an 
	   accelerated rate, resulting in an explosive release of energy.
	d) Because by this time the star is so hot, it can't hold itself 
	   together.
	e) Iron fusion actually takes away energy from the core, causing it
	   to collapse and then rebound, resulting in a supernova explosion.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #52 - Medium 74/Good 42, 18% answered c)
Which of the following elements which are vital for life can ONLY have 
been initially created and released by a star that underwent a supernova?
	a) Hydrogen
	b) Oxygen
	c) Carbon
	d) Nitrogen
	e) Phosphorus
--
What first happens to a solar-like star when it runs out of Hydrogen 
in its core?
	a) The star contracts, pushing more Hydrogen into the core so 
	   that Hydrogen fusion can continue there.
	b) The core and surrounding region begins to collapse, and Hydrogen 
	   to Helium fusion continues outside the core.
	c) It explodes as a nova.
	d) The star, no longer able to support itself, collapses and 
	   becomes a black hole.
	e) Its outer layers get blown off and the stellar core becomes a 
	   white dwarf.
--
Why do we say a solar-like star has run out of fuel after it has only 
used up about 10% of its total mass of Hydrogen?
	a) Because stars are only hot enough to fuse Hydrogen in the 	
	   very center, a region that holds only about 10% of the star's mass.
	b) Because it isn't able to fuse anything heavier than Hydrogen.
	c) We're being a little conservative.  Actually, the star can 
	   burn about 30% of its total mass.
	d) If a star released more than 10% of its total mass as energy, 
	   it would blow itself apart.
	e) We're trying to get Congress to grant us a fuel subsidy.
--
What do we think is the main energy source for stars?
	a) Mass converted into energy is fusion reactions.
	b) Neutrino collisions in the central cores of stars.
	c) Gravitational potential energy from the collapse of the star.
	d) Mass converted into energy in fusion reactions.
	e) None of the above
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #29 - Medium 61/Fair 29)
Conditions in the centers of stars most closely resemble the Universe 
as a whole at the age of
	a) 10^-43 seconds
	b) 10^-35 seconds
	c) 3 minutes
	d) 100,000 years
	e) 10 billion years
--
There are really two basic types of Supernovae that occur in the Universe.  
Type I supernovae occur when two white dwarfs merge together after a 
long process of orbital decay, resulting in an explosion very rich in 
Iron but very poor in Silicon (which is lighter than Iron).  Type II 
supernovae occur when a very massive star explodes at the end of its 
standard evolution as we have discussed in class.  Type II's tend to 
generate lots of silicon but very little iron.  Given these facts, 
which of the following would you expect to be true of the oldest 
observable stars?
	a) The oldest stars should have much more iron than they have silicon.
	b) The oldest stars should have much more silicon than they have iron.
	c) The oldest stars should be like the Sun, with about equal amounts 
	   of silicon and iron.
	d) The oldest stars should have much more of both iron and silicon 
	   than the Sun.
	e) None of the above.
--
Which of these stars is most likely to end up as a Black Hole?
	a) A 0.5 solar mass star
	b) A 1 solar mass star
	c) A 5 solar mass star
	d) A 10 solar mass star
	e) A 50 solar mass star
--
Which of the following is a way in which the interstellar medium can be 
enriched with heavy elements?
	a) Supernova explosions
	b) Stellar winds from evolved stars
	c) Planetary nebulae
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #30 - Easy 90/Fair 15, 7% answered e)
Why do we not believe that massive stars are likely places for the evolution 
of advanced forms of life?  (Remember, we want the best answer).
	a) Massive stars produce lots of extreme ultraviolet radiation, 
	   which would tend to kill any life that did form.
	b) Massive stars have such short lifetimes that the star will 
	   become a red giant before life could possibly have time to 
	   evolve on the planets orbiting around it.
	c) Statistics of binary stars indicates that stars tend to 
	   have companions close to the same mass as the star, which 
	   means that massive stars would have a much lower tendency 
	   to have planets.
	d) Massive stars have strong winds that blow away accreting matter 
	   before it can form planets.
	e) Massive stars become supernovae, which would completely destroy 
	   any life living nearby.
--
*************************************************************************
                         The Solar System
*************************************************************************
(A201 - Winter 93 - #33 - Easy 89/Good 32, 7% answered b)
Where do we think almost all of the water on Earth originated?
	a) It formed with the Earth during the initial condensation.
	b) Outgassed oxygen from the cooling Earth combined with the 
	   initial Hydrogen in the atmosphere to form water.
	c) It came from the mantle material that was blown into orbit 
	   (which eventually formed our Moon).
	d) Chemical reactions within the melted mantle produced water 
	   deep within the Earth as it cooled.
	e) It formed in the outer solar system and then later was carried 
	   into the Earth in the form of a series of impacting comets.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #31 - Medium 75/Fair 22)
How do astronomers use meteorites to find the age of the Solar System?
	a) From the trajectory of the meteorites as they enter the Earth's 
	   atmosphere, we can extrapolate backward to find its orbit 
	   and orbital period, and from that can derive how long it 
	   must have been in that orbit.
	b) We measure the amounts of radioactive elements in the meteorite, 
	   as compared to their daughter products.  From this, we can 
	   calculate how long ago the object solidified.
	c) We count the density of small craters on the surface of the 
	   meteorite to find its age.
	d) We measure the amounts of volatile substances and from that 
	   can figure out its age.
	e) We determine its composition, and figure out how much more 
	   Hydrogen it has than the solar system has now.  From this, 
	   we calculate how long the Sun has been depleting Hydrogen.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #34 - Easy 96/Good 43)
Why does Jupiter have a composition more like that of the Sun than the Earth?
	a) Most of the heavy elements in the forming planet of Jupiter 
	   went into its surrounding moons.
	b) It doesn't.  All of the planets in the solar system have 
	   roughly the same composition, just distributed differently.
	c) Jupiter was massive enough to retain most of the Hydrogen 
	   with which it formed.
	d) All of the Carbon on the Earth has been used up by life forms.
	e) Jupiter was able to pick up a larger variety of atoms and 
	   molecules from its larger feeding zone.
--
Why are the Jovian planets larger in general than the terrestrial planets?
	a) The formation of water ice in the outer solar system enabled 
	   the Jovian planets to grow faster than the terrestrial planets.
	b) There was more material from which to build large planets in 
	   the outer solar nebula.
	c) The moons of the Jovian planets helped to stabilize their 
	   rotation and redirect more infalling matter onto the planets.
	d) Two of the above.
	e) All of the above.
--
Almost all of the mass in our solar system is contained in
	a) the planets
	b) the Sun
	c) about equally in the planets and the Sun
	d) the planets, comets and asteroids combined
	e) the Solar wind
--
What do scientists think is the most likely source of replenishment of 
the Earth-crossing asteroids?
	a) There are simply a great number left over from the forming 
	   solar system.
	b) Burned-out comets.
	c) Escaped moons from other planets.
	d) Escaped objects from the asteroid belt.
	e) Earth isn't massive enough to eject these asteroids from the 
	   solar system, so they are continually falling back in toward us.
--
What effect does the tide caused by the Earth's Moon have on the 
Earth-Moon system?
	a) Tides cause the Earth and Moon to slowly move closer together.
	b) Tides cause "bulges" on both sides of the Earth and Moon.
	c) Tides cause the same face of the Moon to always face the Earth.
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above
--
What is currently the most favored theory for the origin of the Earth's Moon?
	a) It was captured during the last stages of the Earth's accretion.
	b) A giant impact occured late in the Earth's accretion phase, 
	   blowing off a large enough chunk of the Earth to form a large 
	   orbiting Moon.
	c) Gravitational perturbations by Jupiter caused disturbances in 
	   the asteroid belt, resulting in one escaping and being 
	   subsequently captured by the Earth.
	d) It was spun off the rapidly rotating proto-Earth and then 
	   the material cooled and solidified into the Moon.
	e) Medeival mice created it as a future storehouse in reaction 
	   to the Great Green Cheese Shortage of 1312.
--
What causes the Kirkwood gaps in the asteroid belt?
	a) Comets have interacted strongly with certain outlying regions 
	   of the asteroid belt, resulting in large numbers of asteroids 
	   escaping, hence creating the gap.
	b) Periodic gravitational perturbations of the asteroid belt 
	   by Mars.
	c) Periodic gravitational perturbations of the asteroid belt 
	   by Jupiter.
	d) The larger asteroids have swept out certain areas of the belt 
	   in a process similar to planetary accretion, leaving the gaps.
	e) The asteroid belt formed that way due to interactios with the 
	   Sun's magnetic field and the solar wind.
--
About how often do we expect a large (10 kilometer os so) asteroid to 
impact the Earth?
	a) Every few tens of thousands of years or so.
	b) Every few tens of millions of years or so.
	c) Every billion years or so.
	d) This stopped happening at the end of the accretion phase and 
	   hasn't happened since.
	e) None of the above
--
Which of the following is evidence that a supernova explosion triggered 
the collapse of the molecular cloud that because the solar system?
	a) The fact that comets and asteroids were needed to transport 
	   volatile elements from the outer solar system to Earth.
	b) It takes a blast wave as powerful as that of a supernova to 
	   cause such a massive cloud to collapse.
	c) The sun is enriched in elements heavier than Helium.
	d) We see decay traces from short-lived radioactive elements 
	   (that can only come from supernovae) inside primitive rocks.
	e) The fact that we find elements heavier than iron in the 
	   solar system.
--
How do we know that comets are primitive material?
	a) Their spectra are almost identical to many of the primitive 
	   asteroids that have struck the Earth.
	b) They are replenished from some source outside the solar system; 
	   that's the only way to explain why we still see them even though 
	   they have relatively short lifespans.
	c) They have water ice in them, so they must never have melted or 
	   undergone differentiation.
	d) They have such odd orbits that they must have formed in the 
	   early, chaotic period of the solar system.
	e) They exist largely in the outer solar system.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #32 - Easy 94/Good 38)
Suppose we have a sample of rock that was at one time pure Uranium, 
which decays into lead with a half-life of 1 billion years.  We now find 
it to be only 1/16th Uranium, with the remainder being inert lead.  
How old is this sample of rock?
	a) 1/16th billion years
	b) 1/4th billion years
	c) 1 billion years
	d) 4 billion years
	e) 16 billion years
--
Why should you not use Carbon dating to determine the age of the oldest 
rocks on the Earth?
	a) The halflife of Carbon-14 is too large to be usable.
	b) The rocks are far too old to use an isotope with such a short 
	   half-life.
	c) There was no Carbon-14 around when the Earth formed, so you 
	   would not expect to find any in old rocks.
	d) Carbon-14 is a non-existent isotope.
	e) Llamas have hidden all the Carbon-14.
--
*************************************************************************
                          Earth-Venus-Mars
*************************************************************************
(A201 - Winter 93 - #35 - Easy 99/Fair 18)
Why does Venus have no water today?
	a) It formed in a hotter part of the nebula than the Earth and 
	   so didn't form with water, which requires cooler temperatures 
	   to condense.
	b) Venus didn't suffer from a giant impact like Earth did (when 
	   the Moon formed) and so the mantle never melted and released 
	   all of its locked up water.
	c) Venus received almost no water since water-ice carried in 
	   from the outer solar system on comets would melt due to 
	   proximity to the Sun.
	d) The initial liquid water was vaporized by the high surface 
	   temperatures and eventually was broken apart high in the 
	   atmosphere over time.
	e) The Venusians are trying to pretend they're from California.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #37 - Medium 68/Fair 26, 25% answered b)
Why hasn't the Earth lost its water?
	a) The Earth is far enough from the Sun so that we don't receive 
	   a large amount of UV radiation.
	b) The Earth's thick atmosphere holds the water in.
	c) The Earth is cool enough so that most water is in the form 
	   of liquid and ice and hence is not free to leave.
	d) Volcanic outgassing replenishes the Earth's water.
	e) The Moon shields the Earth from many projectiles that might 
	   strip the planet of its water.
--
What was the major process that removed Carbon Dioxide from the Earth's 
primordial atmosphere?
	a) The proliferation of plant life converted most of the Carbon 
	   Dioxide in the atmosphere into Oxygen.
	b) Volcanic eruptions pushed Carbon Dioxide high into the atmosphere, 
	   where it was dissociated by UV light and turned into other 
	   molecules.
	c) Outgassing of Nitrogen from the cooling mantle of Earth pushed 
	   the Carbon Dioxide high into the atmosphere where it could 
	   either escape or be dissociated.
	d) Geochemical processes (like weathering) slowly removed the 
	   Carbon Dioxide from the atmosphere and locked it up into the 
	   Earth's rocks.
	e) The onset of the industrial revolution.
--
What evidence do we have that our theory on the way Venus lost its water 
is right?
	a) We've found dry riverbeds on Venus.
	b) There is evidence of permafrost on Venus, as found by the Venera 
	   landers.
	c) We find a relatively large abundance of D20, or heavy water, 
	   on Venus.
	d) Venus leaves a trail of water gas behind in its orbit, 
	   indicating that it is still losing water.
	e) NASA scientists have found fossil llamas on Venus.
--
The very first atmosphere of the Earth (before life began to develop) 
probably contained mostly
	a) H and He
	b) H, C, N and O in atomic form
	c) Carbon Dioxide, Water and molecular Nitrogen
	d) Methane, Ammonia, molecular Oxygen and Argon
	e) The early Earth had no atmosphere at all (before about 
	   2 billion years after formation)
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #36 - Hard 43/Poor -.11, 51% answered b)
What is the primary reason Carbon Dioxide was removed so effectively 
from Earth's atmosphere but not that of Venus?
	a) Venus didn't hold its liquid water for long enough to have 
	   significant amounts of Carbon Dioxide removed from the 
	   atmosphere by geological processes.
	b) Venus didn't have plant life to help remove the Carbon Dioxide.
	c) Venus' atmosphere was so dense that Carbon Dioxide couldn't 
	   escape the planet.
	d) Venus is slightly more massive than the Earth, making it harder 
	   for the heavier gases, like Carbon Dioxide, to escape the planet.
	e) One word:  Elvis.
--
What is the chief cause of the Oxygen build-up in our atmosphere?
	a) Material brought in from comets and meteors.
	b) The burning of fossil fuels.
	c) Outgassing of volcanoes.
	d) Waste from anaerobic microbes.
	e) Organisms developing photosynthesis.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #38 - Easy 89/Fair 18, 11% answered c)
What is the major reason Mars lacks a significant atmosphere (as opposed 
to the Earth and Venus)?
	a) Mars doesn't have sufficient gravity to hold on to even the 
	   heavier gases, like water, Nitrogen and Oxygen.
	b) Mars never received water like the Earth and Venus and so 
	   was never able to start the process of atmospheric evolution.
	c) It is too cold on Mars for any atmospheric molecules to exist 
	   in a gaseous state.
	d) Mars formed so close to Jupiter that its "feeding zone" was 
	   stripped of any gases long before Mars was big enough to attract 
	   an atmosphere.
	e) It was too hot in the part of the solar nebula where Mars formed 
	   for any gases to exist and subsequently be accreted onto Mars.
--
How does the presence of the Moon help the development of life on Earth?
	a) The impact that created the Moon warmed the crust of the Earth, 
	   providing an important heat energy source for the development 
	   of life.
	b) The melting of the Earth's mantle caused by the giant impact 
	   which formed the Moon resulted in chemical reactions that 
	   released locked-up water from the Earth's crust.
	c) The Moon causes large tides which create a natural energy 
	   source for life to use and to create tidal pools which serve 
	   to concentrate and isolate the needed organic materials for life.
	d) The Moon's gravity helps the Earth to hang on to its atmosphere, 
	   especially water vapor and molecular Oxygen, which might otherwise 
	   escape.
	e) Reflected sunlight helps creatures with vision like our own to 
	   see at night and protect themselves.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #39 - Easy 89/Fair 21)
Why is it no longer possible for liquid water to exist on Mars?
	a) Because there is no frozen or gaseous water on Mars.
	b) There isn't enough atmospheric pressure for water to maintain 
	   a liquid phase.
	c) Liquid water would interact with the Carbon Dioxide in the 
	   atmosphere and break down.
	d) Mars isn't massive enough for liquid water to be held down 
	   on the surface.
	e) Mars never formed or acquired any water in the first place.
--
In spite of the fact that the Sun was fainter in the past than it is now 
(we know this from our models of stellar evolution), the temperature at
the Earth's surface has remained almost constant.  What is the most 
likely reason for this so-called "Faint Sun Paradox?"
	a) Living organisms have increased the greenhouse effect over time.
	b) The tilt of the Earth's axis has changed.
	c) The Earth had a thinner primordial atmosphere that couldn't 
	   hold heat as efficiently.
	d) Living organisms have reduced the original amount of greenhouse 
	   gases in the atmosphere.
	e) The Earth's orbit is slowly moving out away from the Sun, so 
	   it was closer in the past.
--
Which of the following do we classify as "greenhouse gases?"
	a) Carbon Dioxide
	b) Water Vapor
	c) Methane
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #40 - Easy 88/Good 39, 10% answered a)
Why does Carbon Dioxide keep the Earth warmer than it would be otherwise?
	a) It is heavier than most gases and so sits down near the ground 
	   and acts as a physical blanket to keep the temperature constant 
	   at night.
	b) It is able to directly absorb visible sunlight and store it 
	   for release when it gets colder.
	c) It absorbs infrared radiation from the cooling surface and 
	   redirects it randomly rather than letting it all escape into space.
	d) It forms into dark clouds high in the atmosphere that store 
	   solar energy.
	e) It acts as a refractor in order to steer more sunlight that 
	   would normally miss the Earth tangentially to be redirected to 
	   hit the surface (this is why our days are slowly getting longer).
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #41 - Medium 60/Good 43, 28% answered c)
Which of the following explain why the Earth has a different composition 
than the Sun?
	a) The lightest elements escaped the Earth's gravity.
	b) The Earth was formed after the Sun, and the Solar Nebula 
	   became enriched in the meantime).
	c) The Earth was formed from different materials than the Sun 
	   (else it would be a star, too!)
	d) Mankind has burned up most of the fossil fuels on Earth.
	e) The greenhouse effect.
--
Among the important characteristics that have led to such different 
conditions (e.g. temperature, atmospheric pressure and composition) on 
Venus, Earth and Mars today are:
	a) Their distances from the Sun.
	b) Their sizes (and masses).
	c) The presence or absence of life.
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above
--
Which of the following is NOT one of the phases of the Carbon Cycle?
	a) Volcanoes erupt, sending Carbon into the atmosphere.
	b) Sealife uses Carbon to form shells, and they eventually die, 
	   allowing the Carbon to float down and be deposited on the sea 
	   floor.
	c) Rain and Carbon Dioxide combine with rocks in a process called 
	   weathering that takes Carbon Dioxide from the atmosphere and 
	   gets it into rivers and streams.
	d) Subduction of the sea floor carries Carbon deep beneath the 
	   Earth's surface.
	e) All of the above are part of the Carbon Cycle.
--
*************************************************************************
                   Origin and Evolution of Life
*************************************************************************
Which of the following scenarios provide direct or indirect evidence 
for the processes of natural selection and/or evolution?
	a) Dark moths are less likely to be eaten by birds than are 
	   white moths when they live in areas with dark backgrounds.  
	   Thus, after large amounts of soot were introduced by the 
	   industrial revolution in England, dark moths produced far 
	   more offspring than white moths.
	b) Hummingbirds have achieved a statet of near "perfection" in 
	   which almost all of their behaviors and morphologies have 
	   evolved as a means of gathering nectar from flowers.
	c) Transitional fossils show that currently separate groups such 
	   as chimps and humans share a common ancestor.
	d) b and c only
	e) All of the above
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #42 - Medium 79/Fair 18, 15% answered c)
Which of the following is consistent with current evolutionary theory?
	a) Humans evolved from chimps.
	b) Humans and chimps evolved from some common ancestor.
	c) A genetic mutation in a population of chimps 3.5 million years 
	   ago led to the evolution of the human species.
	d) Chimps and humans have evolved completely separate lineages.
	e) Fans of elevator music tend to suffer from sudden brain death 
	   more often than most humans.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #43 - Medium 61/Poor 02, 35% answered b)
The process of evolution is best described by which of the following?
	a) A change in the composition and/or genetic structure of a 
	   population over time.
	b) The differential survival and reproduction of individuals 
	   as a function of their traits, which provide selective 
	   "advantage" or "disadvantage."
	c) A change in an individual"s characteristics in response to 
	   environmental change.
	d) The means by which individuals may respond to "challenges" 
	   set by the environment and other individuals.
	e) A bogus theory which currently holds no credibility in the 
	   scientific community.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #58 - Medium 71/Fair 17, 25% answered d)
DNA and/or RNA is found in:
	a) Higher vertebrates
	b) all animals
	c) primitive bacteria
	d) a and b only
	e) all of the above
--
The extinction of the dinosaurs was probably caused by:
	a) A large volcanic eruption
	b) Abduction and predation by aliens
	c) An impact of a large (10 or more km in size) asteroid.
	d) A sudden increase in atmospheric temperature due to massive 
	   Carbon Dioxide emission by dinosaurs.
	e) The appearance of llamas.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #44 - Easy 93/Fair 25)
What is currently believed to have caused the last major mass extinction, 
65 million years ago?
	a) A large asteroid or comet struck the Earth, throwing up large 
	   amounts of debris, dramatically altering the climate.
	b) A large asteroid impacted the Earth, released Iridium, which 
	   killed over 90% of the species because of its radioactivity.
	c) The tilt of the Earth's rotation shifted such that the temperature 
	   dropped too quickly for species to adapt.
	d) A series of volcanic eruptions released Carbon, which had been 
	   locked up in the Earth's crust, increasing the greenhouse effect 
	   and causing global warming.
	e) The invention of bagpipes.
--
If there are no selection pressures working on a species, will there be 
mutations?
	a) No, because the species will not evolve.
	b) No, they would be disadvantageous.
	c) Yes, the species will still evolve as if there were a 
	   selection pressure.
	d) Yes, but the species is not likely to evolve.
	e) No, there is no evidence that mutations have ever occured.
--
Each position in the "ladder" of DNA is held by one of four types of 
bases (call them A, C, T, G).  What is the probability that a given chain 
will be AAAA?
	a) 1
	b) 1/4
	c) 1/16
	d) 1/64
	e) 1/256
--
Which of the following is NOT an essential condition for life as we know it?
	a) Sufficient gravity to hold an atmosphere.
	b) The presence of liquid water.
	c) Energy from the Sun.
	d) Polar caps to store water.
	e) Ample quantities of Carbon, Nitrogen and Oxygen.
--
Both Carbon and Silicon form reasonably strong bonds and are capable of 
making complex chains of molecules.  Why, then, is Carbon favored over 
Silicon as a basis for life?
	a) Carbon is more abundant on Earth.
	b) Carbon combines readily with Oxygen to form CO2, which can be 
	   dissolved and used easily, whereas combining Silicon and Oxygen 
	   generally results in sand.
	c) Carbon can form a radioactive isotope that is useful in dating 
	   old remains.
	d) a and b only
	e) all of the above
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #45 - Medium 75/Good 33, 22% answered b)
Why are Silicon-based life forms considered to be less likely than 
Carbon-based life forms?
	a) Silicon is too rare on Earth, and as such could not provide 
	   the material necessary.
	b) Silicon forms only very weak bonds, and as such cannot form 
	   complex molecules.
	c) Silicon is radioactive and decays over a short time span.
	d) Silicon has a high affinity for Oxygen, which tends to lock 
	   up the Silicon in SiO2, which is sand.
	e) Silicon can only be created by the reactions which occur 
	   in a supernova.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #46 - Medium 72/Fair 23, 24% answered a)
Some anthropologists believe that certain primates evolved the ability to 
walk upright as a result of selective pressure based on the ability to 
see above the tall grass on the plains.  What further consequence would 
this have had?
	a) Eyesight now needed to be selected for in order to see predators.
	b) Forepaws could now be free for the creation and use of tools.
	c) The species could now run faster.
	d) There was a selective pressure for smaller body sizes, in 
	   order to hide better.
	e) The human skull became thicker in order to ward off the 
	   attacks of predatory birds.
--
In what environment did hominids originate?
	a) High altitude rain forests
	b) Grasslands
	c) Mountains
	d) Tropical rain forests
	e) Caves
--
The Miller-Urey experiment demonstrated that:
	a) Complex organic molecules form easily under primitive Earth 
	   conditions.
	b) Life (bacteria) can survive in space.
	c) Complex hypercycles can form on clay.
	d) Genetic code is stored in DNA.
	e) Photosynthetic plants can alter the Earth's atmosphere 
	   significantly.
--
If you were to take a typical Cro-magnon man, shave him and dress him 
in a business suit, which would he most closely resemble?
	a) A chimpanzee, clean-shaven and dressed in a suit.
	b) A gorilla, clean-shaven and dressed in a suit.
	c) An orangutan, clean-shaven and dressed in a suit.
	d) Woody Sullivan, clean-shaven and dressed in a suit.
	e) A New World monkey, clean-shaven and dressed in a suit.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #47 - Medium 78/Poor 05, 15% answered e)
Homo Sapiens is the only primate that:
	a) Uses tools
	b) Communicates with others of the species
	c) Uses abstract written symbols
	d) a and b
	e) a, b and c
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #48 - Medium 75/Good 52)
Geographical isolation plays what role in evolution?
	a) It increases the rate of mutations.
	b) It forces a species to adapt to new conditions.
	c) It leads to divergence of species.
	d) It disrupts the process of natural selection.
	e) It plays no role in evolution.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #49 - Medium 58/Fair 26)
What is a major stumbling block for scientific theories about the 
origin of life on early Earth?
	a) Presence of suitable elements on the early Earth.
	b) How life could arise in the hostile environment of the early 
	   Earth.
	c) How necessary organic molecules such as amino acids could 
	   have formed.
	d) How complex polymers like RNA could have formed.
	e) How evolution could produce complex animals from simple organisms.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #50 - Medium 75/Good 31)
The reason that the human eye is most sensitive in the 4000 to 7000 
Angstrom range (i.e. the "visible" region of the spectrum) is because:
	a) There are no strong spectral lines in this region of the 
	   spectrum of most stars.
	b) The thermal radiation from most objects on our planet 
	   (including people) is mostly in this region of the spectrum.
	c) Our Sun puts out most of its light in this region, and 
	   therefore there is an evolutionary advantage to being able 
	   to utilize these wavelengths.
	d) There wavelengths have the highest possible energies of all 
	   light and can thus trigger our rather insensitive optic nerves.
	e) All stars put out most of their light in that range.
--
There are four DNA bases.  These combine in groups of three (triplets) to 
form the code for amino acids.  How many different triplet codes (amino 
acids) can one derive from these bases?
	a) 12
	b) 16
	c) 20
	d) 64
	e) 81
--
Consider the following descriptions of an entity:
(1) It has the ability to grow.
(2) It has the ability to make perfect copies of itself.
(3) It has the ability to make almost-perfect copies of itself.
(4) It has the ability to undergo natural selection.
(5) It has the ability to use resources around it.
Which of the above are sufficient to define life as we know it?
	a) (1)
	b) Either (2) or (3)
	c) (4)
	d) None is sufficient in itself.
	e) Any one is sufficient
--
Which of the following elements or compounds would have greatly hampered 
the development of life on Earth had it been present in the atmosphere 
during the era in which life first got going?
	a) Water vapor
	b) Carbon
	c) Nitrogen
	d) Oxygen
	e) None of the above
--
When the very first life began to develop, the atmosphere of the Earth 
probably contained mostly:
	a) H and He
	b) H, C, N and O in atomic form
	c) Carbon Dioxide, water and Nitrogen
	d) Methane, Ammonia and Argon
	e) The Earth had no atmosphere at this stage.
--
What are the odds that a specific strand of RNA, 100 bases long, 
should randomly form in a soup of the 4 different kinds of bases?
	a) 1
	b) 1/4
	c) 1/100
	d) (1/100)^4
	e) (1/4)^100
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #51 - Easy 85/Poor 26, 10% answered a, and they 
were by far the best students)
It was inevitable that 3 or 4 billion years of evolution would lead 
to intelligent creatures such as humans because:
	a) Large brains have great survival value
	b) Humans are the natural endpoint of evolution
	c) Mass extinctions of species destroy all non-intelligent species
	d) Our vision and hands were designed to produce intelligence
	e) This statement is wrong, according to evolutionary biologists today
--
Why does evolution require a selective pressure?
	a) Mutations will not occur without some sort of unexpected 
	   outside influence.
	b) Mutations are inherently disadvantageous without some 
	   pressure to make them beneficial, so random mutations will 
	   die out without such a pressure.
	c) Selective pressure can only exist after evolution has occured.
	d) a and b only
	e) None of the above
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #53 - Medium 71/Good 41)
Which of the following best describes how the greenhouse effect works?
	a) Visible sunlight which reflects off of the Earth's surface will 
	   reflect back off of certain gasses in the atmosphere, resulting 
	   in unusual warming of the surface.
	b) Ultraviolet sunlight will be absorbed high in the atmosphere 
	   by greenhouse gases and redistributed through the atmosphere 
	   as warming infrared radiation.
	c) Sunlight absorbed by the Earth will be re-emitted as infrared 
	   radiation as the Earth attempts to cool itself, but certain 
	   gasses will prevent this radiation from easily escaping.
	d) Extensive amounts of water vapor in the atmosphere form large 
	   cloud layers, which trap all types of radiation from leaving 
	   the Earth, thus preventing cooling.
	e) If you build a greenhouse, the llamas will come.
--
How can the presence of water vapor in our atmosphere actually serve to 
decrease the temperature?
	a) It makes the atmosphere thicker so that it captures more 
	   sunlight instead of letting it pass through.
	b) It can form clouds which will reflect sunlight directly back 
	   into space.
	c) It can't.  Water vapor, since it is a greenhouse gas, can 
	   only raise the atmospheric temperature.
	d) a and b only
	e) None of the above are true.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #54 - Medium 78/Poor 06, 18% answered b, 18% 
answered e (smarter students, too))
What caused the onset of the most enormous increase in the number of 
species in evolutionary history?
	a) The addition of large amounts of liquid water to the Earth.
	b) The large buildup of Oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere.
	c) The removal of Ammonia from the Earth's atmosphere.
	d) The onset of sexual reproduction.
	e) The mass extinction event known as the KT event, 65 million 
	   years ago.
--
Which of the following contributed to the diversity of species on Earth?
	a) Sexual reproduction
	b) Tidal forces from the Sun and Moon
	c) Continental drift
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above
--
Geographical isolation plays what role in evolution?
	a) It increase the rate of mutation.
	b) It forces a species to adapt to new conditions.
	c) It disrupts the process of natural selection.
	d) It leads to divergence of species.
	e) It plays no role in evolution.
--
The 2nd law of Thermodynamics tells us that
	a) A VW Bug can run with 100% efficiency
	b) No energy will ever be lost.
	c) No perpetual motion is possible.
	d) Entropy has to decrease with time.
	e) None of the above
--
If life on other planets is not based on DNA inheritance, what would 
a molecule taking the place of DNA need be able to do?
	a) Must be able to store large amounts of information.
	b) Must be able to replicate accurately.
	c) Must be able to mutate occasionally from perfect replication.
	d) Two of the above
	e) All of the above.
--
One of the major pieces of evidence for the impact hypothesis of the 
K-T extinction 65 million years ago is that the geologic record shows 
a layer of iridium was deposited at that time over a very brief period.  
Why is this such "convincing" evidence?  I.e. what is so special about 
iridium that makes this layer so important?
	a) Iridium is an element freshly synthesized in a supernova, so 
	   it had to come from space.
	b) Iridium is enriched in meteorites, and a large asteroid impact 
	   is the easiest way to get a sudden deposit of iridium.
	c) Iridium is a volatile element that escaped the Earth along 
	   with the Hydrogen and Helium from the solar nebula, so any 
	   iridium had to come from space.
	d) Iridium has spectral characteristics that are only found in 
	   association with impacts.
	e) Iridium is the material that other civilizations are mostly 
	   likely to make starships out of since it can withstand 
	   the radiation of matter-antimatter annihilation best.
--
Which of the following is evidence for evolution?
	a) Amount of biochemical similarity among organisms
	b) "Intermediates" and missing links in the fossil record 
	   (transitional fossils)
	c) The presence of simple amino acids in the Miller-Urey experiment.
	d) a and b only
	e) All of the above
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #55 - Medium 74/Good 37)
In general, the overall diversity of life (numbers of species) on Earth has:
	a) Steadily increased over time
	b) Steadily decreased over time
	c) Generally increased, but has been punctuated by at least 
	   5 major interruptions in which a large number of species have 
	   gone extinct.
	d) Generally increased, but then has been "reset" by mass 
	   extinctions such that the overall diversity has not changed 
	   much in the long run.
	e) Remained constant over geologic time - the increase seen in the 
	   fossil record is an artifact due to the "pull of the recent."
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #56 - Medium 79/Fair 24)
The first form of life for which we have fossil evidence is:
	a) Tube worms at deep sea hydrothermal vents.
	b) Stromatolites, a type of blue-green algae that can function 
	   in the complete absence of Oxygen.
	c) Vascular plants, which greatly increased the amount of Oxygen 
	   in the Earth's atmosphere.
	d) Plankton, which started the Carbon cycle.
	e) Primordial llamas.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #57 - Easy 100/Poor 0, everyone got this right!!!)
The existence of "vestigial" structures such as the human appendix and 
tailbone suggests that:
	a) Those ancestors which did not have these structures went extinct.  
	   Thus there is some selective "advantage" to possessing 
	   vestigial structures.
	b) Although these structures now serve no particular function, 
	   they presumably have in some previous ancestor.  This is 
	   evidence that humans have evolved (changed) over time.
	c) Sometimes traits evolve that have no particular function.
	d) Chimps do not have vesitigial organs.  This is what originally 
	   separated us from our common ancestor.
	e) Llamas also have appendices.  Life on Earth must therefore 
	   have originated with some "hypothetical ancestral llama" (HAL).
--
Which of the following best describes the Earth during the Cretaceous 
era (when dinosaurs prevailed, more than 65 million years ago)?
	a) An atmosphere rich in Carbon Dioxide that was much warmer.
	b) Much like today, but with far less Oxygen.
	c) Desert-like conditions with little free liquid water.
	d) Exactly like today.
	e) Considerably colder than today.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #59 - Medium 72/Fair 29)
A Washington apple grower hands you a bare meteorite that he's used 
as a paperweight for a few years.  Back in your lab, you take a sample 
from the rock and measure the amino acids in it.  How could you tell 
whether these originate from terrestrial life (e.g., a thumbprint!)?
	a) Extraterrestrial amino acids all occur with equal frequency
	b) Extraterrestrial amino acids from life are all right handed, 
	   while all terrestrial amino acids are left handed
	c) Extraterrestrial amino acids are both right and left handed, 
	   while all terrestrial amino acids are left handed
	d) Terrestrial amino acids all occur with equal frequency, while 
	   extraterrestrial amino acids are biased towards the ones with 
	   heavier elements
	e) Terrestrial amino acids never occur singly, while extraterrestrial 
	   amino acids do.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #60 - Medium 65/Fair 23, 24% answered b)
How are lipids important for the origin of life?
	a) They shielded life from ultraviolet radiation
	b) They enabled protein bonds to form
	c) They were vital for the formation of membranes, thus allowing 
	   cells to form.
	d) They enabled food intake
	e) They made carbon available for reactions to form other 
	   organic compounds
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #61 - Medium 61/Fair 20, 21% answered b, 17% answered e)
Charles Darwin's theory of natural selection states that:
	a) More individuals are born than can survive to reproduce.
	b) There are variations of traits that may make certain individuals 
	   more likely to survive and reproduce.
	c) The alteration of traits acquired throughout an individual's 
	   lifetime may be transmitted to that individual's offspring, 
	   the new traits are advantageous.
	d) a and b only
	e) a, b and c
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #62 - Medium 71/Fair 27, 18% answered d)
Which of the following traits make the presence of water so vital for life?
	a) It serves as a "universal solvent" to break chemical bonds 
	   and release energy or free up essential elements for other 
	   reactions.
	b) It remains in its liquid phase over a relatively wide range 
	   of temperatures.
	c) It has a large heat capacity and can serve as a stable 
	   temperature regulator, which is an aid to certain chemical 
	   reactions.
	d) Two of the above
	e) a, b and c
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #63 - Medium 79/Fair 12, 14% answered c)
Why does sexual reproduction lead to increased variety of species?
	a) Sex is so enjoyable that it is a very effective method of 
	   reproduction and hence increases a species numbers faster 
	   than other methods (such as budding) - this leads to a greater 
	   probability for variation.
	b) Sexual jealousy leads to conflict, which splits groups and 
	   eventually forms different species.
	c) Sex complicates DNA duplication, which leads to a greater 
	   error rate and causes more variation.
	d) Sex increases diversity by shuffling genes around from 
	   generation to generation.
	e)  Sexual competition encourages animals to excel in various 
	    ways to gain the admiration of the opposite sex, hence 
	    increasing diversity.
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #64 - Easy 86/Fair 15)
What is so unusual about the fauna surrounding deep sea hydrothermal vents?
	a) It does not use DNA, but instead reproduces using free amino 
	   acid sequences.
	b) It exists under conditions of extreme temperature and pressure.
	c) The food chain is not based on photosynthesis (and therefore 
	   ultimately not from the energy of the Sun).
	d) b and c only
	e) All of the above
--
*************************************************************************
                                 SETI
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(A201 - Winter 93 - #67 - Medium 79/Good 31, 11% answered e)
Which of the following terms of the Drake equation will most likely have 
a good estimate in the near future?
	a) The fraction of stars that have planets.
	b) The fraction of planets that have life.
	c) The fraction of life-bearing planets with intelligent life.
	d) The fraction of intelligent life that is communicative.
	e) The average lifetime of a technical civilization.
--
Carl Sagan's assumption of mediocrity is an extension of
	a) Einstein's theory of General Relativity
	b) The Copernican Principle
	c) Occam's razor
	d) Hubble's Law
	e) His character
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #65 - Medium 64/Fair 30, 20% answered d)
Regarding the possibility of intelligent life elsewhere in the Universe, 
which of the following is true?
	a) We do not yet know of the existence of Earth-sized planets 
	   around any other star system.
	b) It is physically impossible to ever travel from one star 
	   system to another.
	c) Our current technology is inadequate for communication with 
	   extraterrestrial civilizations.
	d) We have no evidence that organic molecules exist elsewhere 
	   in the Universe.
	e) We have no evidence that solar-type stars exist elsewhere 
	   in the Universe.
--
Spectroscopic binaries have a strong advantage over other means of 
detection of extrasolar planets.  Why is this?
	a) The technique involving spectroscopic binaries is not affected 
	   by orbital inclination.
	b) It can detect planets of any mass, so it doesn"t favor very 
	   massive planets.
	c) By detecting the spectrum of the planet, we can tell if it 
	   has life on it.
	d) It detects the planet directly, rather than being indirect like 
	   other techniques.
	e) It is not affected by distance, so we can check many more systems.
--
If one were to look at the Sun-Jupiter system from 1.3 parsecs away 
(the alpha Cen system), the apparent magnitude of Jupiter would be 22.1.  
This is faint, but still easily detectable using a large telescope.
Why, then, would detecting Jupiter be so difficult?
	a) Because it's so much smaller than the Sun.
	b) Because it shines by reflected light, its spectrum is the same 
	   as the Sun's.
	c) Because Jupiter gets eclipsed, and it is much harder to see then.
	d) Because it is close to the Sun and gets lost in the glare.
	e) Because it moves too fast to get a good picture of it.
--
The technique of using eclipsing binaries to detect planets will only work 
for about 1 system out of 1000.  Why is this?

	a) That's roughly the fraction of stars that don't have spots, 
	   and it's nearly impossible to tell an eclipse from a starspot.
	b) Only about 1 system in 1000 is expected to have planets large 
	   enough to cause detectable eclipses.
	c) Only in about 1 system in 1000 do we expect the planet to 
	   cause eclipses that have a different spectrum from its central 
	   star.
	d) Only about 1 system in 1000 is close enough for us to see eclipses.
	e) Eclipses can only be seen if you're in the orbital planet of a 
	   system, and the chance of this happening is about 1 in 1000.
--
If we ever looked at the spectrum of a planet and saw evidence for the 
presence of molecular Oxygen, the presence of life there would be almost 
a certainty.  Why?
	a) Only terrestrial planets like the Earth can maintain Oxygen 
	   in their atmospheres over long periods.
	b) Only living organisms are capable of producing and maintaining 
	   large levels of molecular Oxygen in an atmosphere.
	c) The presence of Oxygen implies that any Carbon Dioxide in the 
	   atmosphere has been broken down into Oxygen (for the atmosphere) 
	   and Carbon (for living organisms).
	d) Molecular Oxygen requires at least some crude technology to 
	   produce in vast quantities, hence life would have to be present.
	e) None of the above.
--
The most critical problem for the direct imaging of planets orbiting 
other stars is
	a) Angular resolution
	b) Faintness
	c) Orbital inclination
	d) Dynamic range
	e) Angular momentum
--
(A201 - Winter 93 - #66 - Medium 72/Good 42, 18% answered a)
What is the "N" in the Drake equation?  I.e., what are you trying to find 
by going through this calculation?
	a) The number of life-sustaining planets in the Galaxy
	b) The number of intelligent civilizations in the Galaxy.
	c) The number of intelligent and communicative (with, say, 
	   radio telescopes) civilizations in the Galaxy.
	d) The number of civilizations more advanced than ours in the Galaxy.
	e) The number of extinct civilizations in the Galaxy.